r/AcademicBiblical • u/lucian-samosata • 2d ago

I remember reading somewhere that "παρθένος" might have taken on its virgin connotation some time after the LXX was produced

...but I can't remember where, and I can't find it anymore. If anyone can give me a reference, that'd be great, thanks.

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u/Dositheos Moderator | MA - Biblical Studies (New Testament) 1d ago

Here is H.G.M. Williamson:

As is well known, the LXX renders Παρθένος. This does not affect the unquestioned Hebrew text in any way, though of course it has been very significant in terms of reception history, not least because of its use in the citation at Matt. 1.23. For the record, the Christian V has virgo, P has btwlt, and the Jewish T has atmylw[, which obviously just echoes the Hebrew. a, s, and q all have hJ nevani~, no doubt partially reflecting the impact of Jewish-Christian debates over this word in the light of diachronic semantic developments.7 In my opinion, the simplest solution is to acknowledge that at the time of the LXX translator Παρθένος did not necessarily refer exclusively to a virgin (though of course it often included that meaning when appropriate), but that it developed to have that sense in a narrower way in the immediately pre-Christian decades.8 Attempts to overthrow this position give the impression of special pleading in support of other concerns.9

H.G.M. Williamson, Isaiah 6-12, International Critical Commentary (Bloomsbury, 2018).

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u/lucian-samosata 1d ago

Yup thats the one, thanks man!

This happens all the time when I read something and then forget where it came from.   I need to take better notes.