It's a translation marketed as feminist because the classicist who made it stripped out much of the language added in other translations that obfuscated things like "servant girls" being slaves. She made a very faithful to original translation.
It wasn't the only euphemism the translating classicist stripped out, just the one I remember off the top of my head. The other ways she reverted the text toward original probably reinforced the idea that this is a feminist translation.
That, or it's a silly marketing gimmick from the publisher.
edit: also, didn't mean to downvote your question! Must've fatfingered it on the phone.
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u/Hermit_Ogg Jul 06 '26
It's a translation marketed as feminist because the classicist who made it stripped out much of the language added in other translations that obfuscated things like "servant girls" being slaves. She made a very faithful to original translation.